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QUESTION 1
This solution is hosted Software as a Service or SaaS-dedicated Chat solution. It provides both automated and live agent chat modes of operation with seamless escalation from automated to live. (Select one.)
A. Avaya One Touch Video
B. Avaya Automated Chat
C. Avaya Customer Connections Mobile
D. Avaya CallBack Assist
74-678 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which three statements best describe the business challenges that Avaya Aura® Contact Center can solve? (Select three.)
A. Provide a consistent, high quality customer experience
B. Voice channel is overloaded
C. Use agents for tasks customers could do themselves
D. High agent turnover due to low job satisfaction
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
Which Assisted Experience Management product or solution integrates seamlessly with Avaya Interaction Center? (Select one.)
A. Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite
B. Avaya Intelligent Customer Routing
C. Avaya Context Store
D. Avaya Aura® Contact Center
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are products, applications, and solutions that reside within the Experience Layer of the CEM Framework? (Select four.)
A. Avaya Proactive Contact
B. Avaya Outbound Contact Express
C. Avaya Control Manager
D. Avaya Interaction Center
E. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
F. Avaya Aura® Orchestration Designer
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 5
Which are three business challenges that Avaya Proactive Contact can solve? (Select three.)
A. Keep operational cost down
B. Keep existing customers
C. Cost effective ways to grow business, increase revenue
D. Voice channel is overloaded
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which three statements best describe the business challenges that Avaya Media Processing Server (MPS) can solve? (Select three.)
A. Increasingly demanding customers
B. Outbound system complexity and reliability
C. Increase Return on Investment (ROI)
D. Cost control
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which definition applies to Avaya Aura® Orchestration Designer? (Select one.)
A. Cloud application that listens to the relevant social networks, collects items posted, then processes those items
B. An application which provides a visual, graphical design tool for developing service
C. A real-time and historical reporting application for Contact Center Environments
D. A centralized administration solution for managing the key Avaya Contact Center and Unified Communication products in a solution
74-678 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which are Avaya Call Management System (CMS) deployment options? (Select four.)
A. Dell 620 server for the mid range capacity option
B. Dell 720 server for Enterprise capacity option
C. Virtual (OVA on VMWare) Mid or high capacity configuration
D. Dell 620 server for the low range capacity option
E. HP NB56000c-cg server for Enterprise capacity option
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 9
Which Proactive product or solution must have RT_Socket installed for skill-based pacing for campaigns? (Select one.)
A. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
B. Avaya Proactive Contact
C. Avaya Outbound Contact Express
74-678 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the Avaya Media Processing Server hardware options is quoted in the Enterprise Configurator tool? (Select one.)
A. Media Processing Server 500
B. Media Processing Server 1000
C. Media Processing Server 1500
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
With Avaya Aura Experience Portal, the Avaya provided server offer includes which of the following
applications that installs the operating system? (Select one.)
A. Experience Portal OS Wizard
B. Experience Portal Ignition Wizard
C. Enterprise Linux Installer
D. Enterprise Implementation Tool
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which third-party components must be provided by the customer for Avaya One Touch Video? (Select four.)
A. End customer initiating the call workstation
B. Server-class host system with Siebel
C. Web firewall to separate Internet from Enterprise demilitarized zone
D. Web Server for hosting content
E. Server-class host system with Red Hat Enterprise Linux
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 13
With regard to Avaya Outbound Contact Express, which of these applications must run on customer provided hardware? (Select four.)
A. Agent message queue
B. Campaign manager
C. Script manager
D. Supervisor applications
E. IP Office Administrative Apps
F. Avaya Speech Analytics Desktop Client
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 14
Avaya Control Manager provides a single administration platform for which of the following Avaya applications? (Select four.)
A. Avaya Proactive Contact
B. Avaya Operational Analyst
C. Avaya Aura® Contact Center
D. Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite
E. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 15
Which Avaya Aura® Workforce Optimization packages are licensed on a per agent seat basis? (Select three.)
A. Avaya Quality Monitoring Package
B. Avaya Workforce Management Package
C. Avaya Social Media Analytics Package
D. Avaya Workforce Optimization Package
E. Avaya Coaching and eLearning Package
74-678 vce Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 16
Which are software component provided by the Avaya Contact Flow Analytics turnkey solution? (Select three.)
A. Tivoli software
B. Oracle Business Intelligence Enterprise Edition (OBIEE)
C. Contact Flow Analytics software
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) 5.6 Operating System
E. Advanced Interactive executive (AIX) 6.1
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 17
Which two operating systems are supported on customer provided hardware for Avaya Interaction Center? (Select two.)
A. Mac OS X
B. Windows 7 Professional Edition
C. Linux OS
D. Windows Vista Enterprise Edition
74-678 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
The Experience Layer enables organization to do which of following three key activities? (Select three.)
A. Optimize the workforce
B. Connect to the Back-Office
C. Contextual Awareness
D. Best/1:1 Matching
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following apply to the Avaya Customer Experience Management Design layer? (Select three.)
A. Connect and Share Services
B. Trouble Isolation
C. Multi-tenancy Support
D. Workflows and Application Simulation
E. End-to-End Experience Design
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 20
In addition to the Experience Layer, which two layers are part of the seven layers that make up the Avaya Customer Experience Management (CEM) Framework? (Select two.)
A. Implementation Layer
B. Design Layer
C. Collaboration Layer
D. Performance Layer
Correct Answer: BD

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Cisco Exam Pass4itsure 700-802 Dumps Exam Blog Series:
QUESTION 5
What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
700-802 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system changes every day. How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite. What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
700-802 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
700-802 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
700-802 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which RAID level combines data redundancy, performance and shorter rebuild times?
A. RAID 6
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 0+1
700-802 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What is a characteristic of RAID 6?
A. Block-level striping with double distributed parity
B. Block-level striping with distributed parity
C. Block-level striping with dedicated parity disk
D. Byte-level striping with dedicated parity disk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which RAID level best describes parallel access with dedicated parity?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the maximum fault tolerance of RAID 6, where n is the number of disks?
A. n-2
B. 1
C. n-1
D. 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which RAID type uses the full storage capacity of the hard disks in a RAID set?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which component can be a member of a zone?
A. Nodes
B. ToE card
C. ISL trunks
D. NIC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which switch port type is used for the interswitch link connectivity between two FC switches?
A. G_port
B. E_port
C. N_port
D. F_port
700-802 vce Correct Answer: B

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Cisco Exam Pass4itsure 500-260 Dumps Exam Blog Series:
QUESTION 1
Which application is required to enable Microsoft Active Directory identity integration for FirePOWER services?
A. Sourcefire User Agent
B. Microsoft Active Directory Manager
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Microsoft Active Directory Agent
500-260 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An access policy that uses URL reputation values is defined. Which option best describes what happens if a reputation is not available for a URL?
A. The URL check is not triggered, and the default policy action is applied.
B. The URL check fails, and the traffic is dropped.
C. The URL check is unknown, and the traffic is quarantined.
D. The URL check is not triggered and, by default, the user is prompted to take an action to permit or deny.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which three actions are supported by file policies? (Choose three.)
A. malware cloud lookup
B. Spero dynamic analysis
C. block files
D. detect malware
E. bypass
F. block malware
500-260 dumps Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits that are provided by file trajectory services? (Choose two.)
A. identifies malware point of entry
B. highlights attack-propagation paths
C. provides endpoint operating system patches
D. publishes malware gateways on a blacklist
E. pushes personal firewall updates to endpoints
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three Fire POWER services features require a subscription license? (Choose three.)
A. URL filtering
B. AVC
C. high availability
D. AMP
E. IPS
F. identity visibility
500-260 pdf Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6. A load into a column with a LF index fails when
A. 1,500 unique values are reached.
B. 500 unique values are reached.
C. 10,000 unique values are reached.
D. 65,537 unique values are reached.
Answer: C

QUESTION 7. A global temporary table (Choose 2)
A. must be explicitly dropped.
B. exists until the connection or the compound statement in which it is declared ends.
C. writes data to the IQ Catalog Store.
D. uses one table definition but maintains a separate instance of the data per user.
Answer: AD

QUESTION 8. Given the command: create table t1 (col1 char(10) IQ UNIQUE(70000)) What index will be built for col1 when initially loading the table?
A. 1-byte FP
B. 2-byte FP
C. Flat FP
D. HG
500-260 vce Answer: C

QUESTION 9. Which indexes provide the optimizer with both column cardinality AND distribution of values for each distinct value? (Choose 2)
A. LF
B. HNG
C. HG
D. Optimized 1 and 2 byte FP
500-260 exam Answer: AC

QUESTION 10. Which of the following is the recommended limit of unique values that a column may contain and still be considered low-cardinality data by Sybase IQ?
A. 256
B. 1500
C. 16000
D. 65536
Answer: B
QUESTION 11. Which of the following best describes the utility_db database?
A. It is an ascii text file that contains informational messages.
B. It is an empty database used to create and restore databases.
C. It contains all the metadata needed to manage an IQ database.
D. It is the application database that contains all of your tables and indexes.
500-260 dumpsAnswer: B

QUESTION 12. What is TRUE about Sybase IQ? (Choose 3)
A. Sybase IQ is an online transaction-processing engine.
B. Sybase IQ supports a Decision Support System.
C. Sybase IQ supports a Distributed Data Mart.
D. Sybase IQ is a server for applications that require real-time updates.
E. Sybase IQ supports a Data Warehouse.
Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13. Which of the following does the IQ Store contain? (Choose 2)
A. IQ data
B. Table definitions, system tables, and stored procedures
C. Error, status, and insert notification messages for the IQ server
D. Transaction Log
500-260 pdf Answer: AD

QUESTION 14. What will be the approximate size of a full database backup?
A. The size of the catalog database
B. The size of the catalog database plus the size of all dbspaces
C. The size of the catalog database plus the size of all IQ Store dbspaces
D. The size of the catalog database plus the size of IQ blocks used in the IQ Store dbspaces
Answer: D

QUESTION 15. What is TRUE about an INCREMENTAL backup?
A. It is a full backup of Catalog Store and IQ Store.
B. It is a full backup of Catalog Store and backs up changes to the IQ Store since the last IQ backup of any type.
C. It is a full backup of Catalog Store and backs up changes to the IQ Store since the last full IQ backup.
D. It is the default type of backup available for Sybase IQ.
500-260 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 16. Select the requirements for a full database restore. (Choose 3)
A. Database Administrator (DBA) Authority
B. Exclusive access to the database
C. Catalog Store exists
D. Transaction Log exists
E. Connection to the utility_db database
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 17. Identify the effects of setting MINIMIZE_STORAGE to ON. (Choose 3)
A. It sets the value of IQ UNIQUE(255) globally for all new tables.
B. It overrides the IQ UNIQUE clause in CREATE TABLE.
C. It improves query performance.
D. It optimizes storage for new columns.
E. It improves data load times.
500-260 exam Answer: ACD

QUESTION 18. What is TRUE about the DISK_STRIPING option? (Choose 2)
A. The default for DISK_STRIPING is ON.
B. Data to be written to each dbspace in a round-robin fashion.
C. Will make it easier to drop dbspaces later.
D. This option is dynamic and will not require a restart of the IQ Server.
Answer: AB

QUESTION 19. What is NOT the purpose of sp_iqrebuildindex?
A. To reclaim space in the IQ Store
B. To rebuild non-default indexes
C. To relocate data to new dbspaces
D. To rebuild default indexes into 1 or 2 byte FP
Answer: C

QUESTION 20. How do you monitor the activity in the IQ Memory buffer caches?
A. You sp_iqtransaction.
B. You use sp_iqstatus.
C. You use IQ Utilities.
D. You use operating system utilities.
Answer: C

QUESTION 21. Which index(es) should you create on a DATE datatype column with 3000 unique values for users to search on both an exact date as well as a range of dates?
A. HG
B. DATE
C. DATE and HNG
D. HG and DATE
500-260 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 22. Which index type supports multiple columns?
A. LF
B. HG
C. FP
D. HNG
Answer: B

QUESTION 23. What index is created automatically on a column with a foreign key constraint?
A. LF
B. HG
C. Unique HG
D. JOIN
500-260 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24. When you perform Alter Table abc Drop Primary Key, what happens?
A. The HG index on the Primary Key column(s) is/are dropped.
B. The Unique HG index on the Primary Key column(s) is/are dropped.
C. The column(s) for the Primary Key are dropped from the table.
D. You receive an error since you must use the Drop Index Command.
Answer: B

QUESTION 25. What index types are supported for CHAR columns over 255 bytes? (Choose 2)A. FP
B. LF
C. HG
D. HNG
E. WD
500-260 exam Answer: AE


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